The answers are, respectively, yes to the first question and no to the second. See Peter Beinart, writing this morning in the Atlantic, The U.S. Needs to Face Up to Its Long History of Election Meddling.
And here are some more questions, asked and answered by Aardvark.
Did Putin violate an existing international norm by covertly interfering in U.S. elections? Apparently not.
Should there be an international norm against covert interference in other countries’ elections—especially where those elections are free and fair, though likely to produce outcomes we don’t like? Yes, I think there should be.
Regardless of the answers to the preceding questions, is it right to label as treasonous an American who aids and abets foreign meddling in U.S. elections?